What does it mean to be Reformed?
Theonomic as defined here is that we believe that the Holy Scriptures are the sole rule for faith and practice. It encompasses our inward life and our outward living also. It does not permit for compartmentalism at any point, and and exalts every vocation and occupation of the believer as holy unto The Lord. Also, it is to hold the law of God as He has laid down in the Ten Commandments, as binding and only to be interpreted by the case laws and other portions of Holy Writ, and as further illucidated by the New Testament. The Law then is binding on all men unless it is otherwise rescinded, or modified by the New Testament being the fulness of the revelation of God in His Son. To have any other view of the Law, that is to adhere to a "Common Law" that is as some assert in nature is at best a marred and inaccurate law, and pales in comparison to The Law that God has already made known in His word. Why then hold to a "Common Law" or "Natural Law" and not the Divine and revealed Law of God? Therefore I would submit that any other law, natural or otherwise that we ascribe to is Autonomy, and a partial or total rejection of the Law of God. The issue here therefore is the question "Who is in charge?" (see www.cmfnow.com for Dr. Greg Bahnsen's lecture on this matter" or to put it another way, "Who is the Lawgiver?" Most Christians will say, "God of course!" but how consistent are they with that profession? If I were to propose we take the Law of God and have it be the standard by which the justice of our nation. What would the overwhelming response be? Most likely it will be like, "You can't impose God's Law upon unbelievers." or "We are not under Law, but under grace." (Not understanding the actual meaning of such things. But the overwhelming response would be opposed to God's Law being the national Law. Why? because they are not consistent with what they believe. In essence autonomy is still the practical system of law that is in their minds not God's Law. Is God's Law only for some people or all people? Is He the God of the Jews only or also of the Gentiles? The natural law of nature, does it exist apart from the perfect law of God or is it better than the revealed Law of God so that men should hold it with higher esteem and disregard the Law? At this time some may say, "but the Law could never make anyone righteous!" they are correct, but the Law was meant to define what crime and sin were and the appropriate punitive sanctions against them ought to be. It was never intended to justify any. So an objection such as the former is not even applicable to this matter, because the topic is not justification. Justification is only available by grace through faith in Christ Jesus for the OT believer and the NT believer.