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1. What are the valid
Host ID's for 222.37.2.50 /24 ? A.) 222.37.2.48 -
222.37.2.66 B.) 222.37.2.49 - 222.37.2.62 C.) 222.37.2.0 - 222.37.2.255 D.)
222.37.0.0 - 222.37.255.254 E.) 222.37.2.1 - 222.37.2.254 D 2. Which commands
listed below will move you from interface configuration mode back to global
configuration mode? A.) CTL+Z B.) CTL+F C.) exit D.)
global E.) config t C CTRL-Z and CTRL-C
will abort you back to the root. Exit goes back one level. 3. You have a Unix
server running the TFTP Daemon. What is the command to load a configuration
file from the TFTP server into the routers RAM? A.) copy tftp
ram B.) copy tftp running-config C.) read tftp D.) copy tftp startup-config E.) copy tftp nvram B Remember RAM =
RUNNING-CONFIG. All changes to RAM are immediate! 4. Given the following
static route command, ip route 3.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 4.4.4.4 125, which
portion represents the next hop TCP/IP address? A.) 125 B.) 3.3.3.0 C.)
255.255.255.0 D.) route E.) 4.4.4.4 E Router(config)#ip route 3.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 ? A.B.C.D
Forwarding router's address 5. In regards to the
ISDN BRI standard, which channel is used for control? A.) E B.) Q C.) D D.) I E.) B C B is Bearer for Data
(2 channels at 64kb each). D is for Control (16kb). 6. Which Distance
Vector characteristic can help to speed up convergence? A.) Inverse ARP. B.)
Poison Reverse. C.) Triggered Updates. D.) Split Horizon. E.) Hold Down
timers. C Instead of waiting on
a pre-set periodic interval (before sending the routing table), DV routing
protocols can send triggered updates to immediately notify the neighbor
routers. Hold down timers, Poison Reverse, and Split Horizon are features that are used to avoid routing loops. 7. What command would
show the current configuration register settings? A.) show running-config B.) show startup-config C.) show nvram D.) show ram E.) show version F.) show ios E For most routers the
configuration register settings are: 0x2102 normal operation (parse NVRAM at
startup), or 0x2142 password recovery (ignore NVRAM during startup). 8. What would the
following command do?: 'Show Frame-Relay PVC' A.)
Display LMI Info. B.) The command is incomplete, and would be ignored. C.)
Display all configured DLCI's. D.) Debug a
Frame-Relay Problem. E.) Show Virtual Links. C The Permament Virtual Circuit (PVC) info is displayed along
with the Data Link Connection Identifiers (DLCI)'s. 9. Which of the
following are examples of the Session Layer? (3 answers) A.) SQL B.) NFS C.)
IP D.) TCP E.) Netbios Names F.) Token Ring A B E
Controls mechanisms such as checkpoints, terminations, and restarts to establish,
maintain, and synchronize communications between applications. Examples: SQL,
RFC, RPC, X-Windows, NetBIOS Names Layer 5 of the OSI reference model. 10. When editing a line
in the CLI mode, what does 'CTRL-P' do? A.) Moves you to the next word. B.)
Moves you to the next command. C.) Moves you to the end of the line. D.)
Moves you to the beginning of the line. E.) Moves you to the previous
command. E 11. The Internet
Control Message Protocol occurs at what layer of the seven layer model? A.)
Physical B.) Session C.) Datalink D.) Network E.)
Presentation F.) Transport D ICMP is used for
error handling and testing at layer 3. 12. Which command
listed below enables load balancing over two multiple paths for IPX on a
Cisco router? A.) ipx routing 2 B.) ipx round-robin 2 C.) ipx maximum-paths 2 D.) ipx rip 2 E.) ipx sap 2 F.) ipx gns 2 C The default IPX
routing protocol is IPX-RIP. By default, RIP selects the best path, and keeps
only one route in its routing table. The 'IPX maximum-paths' command allows
RIP to load balance over up to 6 paths. 13. Which of the
following is an example of the Physical Layer? A.) IP B.) LLC C.) SQL D.) DDP
E.) Ethernet E 14. What class address
is 193.1.3.4 ? A.) C B.) B C.) multi-cast
D.) broadcast E.) A F.) D A 15. Novell NetWare has
an Ethernet frame type called Ethernet_802.3. What is the matching Cisco
command line keyword for this encapsulation method? A.) arpa
B.) snap C.) novell-ether D.) sap E.) dix F.) gns
C Novell 802.2 = sap
(contains 802.2 LLC headers) Novell 802.3 = novell-ether
(NetWare proprietary) Ethernet_II = arpa (the Internet standard) snap = snap (field type set
to 'AA') 16. What would be the
first command from global configuration mode to perform the following: 1.
Enable IGRP on the router for interface E0 2. Tell
IGRP to use an address of 157.89.4.4 255.255.255.0 3. Tell IGRP to provide
routing updates for AS number 200? A.) router igrp
157.89.4.4 B.) network 157.89.4.0 255.255.255.1 C.) router igrp int
e1 D.) router igrp
157.89.0.0 E.) network 157.89.4.0 F.) router igrp 200 F. You have to specify
which routing protocol first. For IGRP you must also specify the autonomous
system number. Router(config)#router
igrp ? <1-65535> Autonomous system number 17. From global
configuration mode, which command will create subinterface
#1 for serial 0? A.) int sub serial 0 B.) int serial 0 subinterface
1 C.) int ss 0 D.) int
s0.1 point-to-point E.) int
serial 0 subinterface 0 F.) int
s0 D. Command syntax for
creating sub-interfaces: 18. The command 'ip
host Dallas 157.89.8.64' maps the host name D Router#show
hosts Host Flags Age Type Address(es) www.eku.edu
(temp, OK) 0 IP 157.89.8.2 19. The command 'show
running-config' displays the configuration script
in RAM, but what other command could you use to show
information about objects stored in RAM? A.) show startup-config
B.) show all C.) show config D.) debug ram E.) show buffers F.) show start E Packets are stored in
memory locations called buffers during periods when the router becomes
over-loaded with other requests. 20. Which of the
following are examples of the Datalink Layer? (2
answers) A.) SQL B.) IP C.) MAC D.) TCP E.) LLC C E MAC and LLC are the
sublayers of the Datalink
layer. 21. Which type of switching
reads in the entire frame before forwarding it? A.) Fast Forward B.) Tabling
C.) Cut-Through D.) Store-and-Forward E.) Inverse ARP F.) Routing D Store-and-Forward is
slower, but it checks the frame for errors before forwarding. This can
actually help to improve overall network performance on noisy lines. 22. What is the
standard ISDN term for a non-native analog telephone? A.) ET B.) LE C.) TE2
D.) TE1 E.) TA C Terminal Equipment 2 (TE2) does not support native digital
ISDN. The analog device will require an external analog to digital converter.
23. Which layer of the
7 layer model is responsible for representing the application information
between 2 different OS's? For example, converting
ASCII to EBCIDIC. A.) Transport B.) Physical C.) Application D.) Network E.)
Session F.) Presentation F. Presentation Layer
Accepts data from application layer and negotiates data representation,
syntax, compression and encryption. Examples: ASCII, EBCDIC, JPEG, GIF, PICT,
24. How do you view all
debugging that is currently enabled? A.) show running-config
B.) show startup-config
C.) show debug D.) debug
update E.) show flash F.) show version C. 25. Which of the
following is an example of the Network Layer? A.) SQL B.) LLC C.) TCP D.) IP
E.) Token Ring D Most protocol suites
have differnet OSI layer protocols within them. At
layer 3, IP is for TCP/IP. TCP is layer 4. IPX is for IPX/SPX. SPX is layer
4.DDP is for Appletalk 26. Which type of
switching is considered to be 'wire speed?' A.) Inverted B.) Layer 4 C.)
Cut-Through D.) Multiplexed E.) Layer 3 F.) Store and Forward C 27. On an ISDN BRI
interface, the control channel is the 'D' channel. What is the rate of this
channel? A.) 1.544 Mbps B.) 2.048 Mbps C.) 128 Kbps D.) 16 Kbps E.) 64 Kbps D 28 Which commands are
valid to turn off all debugging? ( 2 answers) A.) clear logging B.) no debug C.) no logging D.) clear debug E.) undebug
all F.) no debug all E F 29. Which of the
following are valid Host ID's for 157.89.9.50 /28 (12 bits of subnetting)? A.) 157.89.9.49 - 157.89.9.64 B.) 157.89.0.0
- 157.89.255.255 C.) 157.89.9.0 - 157.89.9.255 D.) 157.89.9.32 - 157.89.9.63
E.) 157.89.9.49 - 157.89.9.62 E Below is a very easy
to use shortcut that requires no binary math: Figure out the mask: /28 =
255.255.255.240 Figure out the subnet multiple: 256-240=16 Subnets are 16,32,48,64,80, etc This is subnet 48, next subnet is 64, so
the broadcast address is 63! Everything between the subnet (48) and broadcast
(63) are the valid hosts. In this example, based on the given mask, the valid
host ranges are 49-62. 30. What is a
characteristic of Store and Forward switches? A.) They decrease latency. B.)
They forward the frame before it is completely read. C.) They are the same a
Cut-Through switching. D.) They read the entire frame and check CRC before
forwarding. E.) They work at wire speed. D 31. Given the following
address: 157.89.8.64 255.255.0.0 which part represents the host portion of
the address? A.) 0.89.8.64 B.) 0.0.8.64 C.) 157.89.0.0 D.) 157.0.0.0 E.) 0.0.0.64
B Using the subnet mask
255.255.0.0, the first 16 bits represent the network, the last 16 bits
represent the host. 32. Which ISDN
specification series deals with Concepts and Terminology? A.) F-Series B.) I-
Series C.) World Series D.) 911-Series E.) Q-Series F.) J-Series B The 2 most important
ISDN specifications are Q & I: Q - Call setup and teardown. I - Concepts
and terminology. 33. Which command would
change the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) update to 90 second intervals? A.) cdp router 90 B.) router cdp 90 C.) cdp
timer 1.5 D.) set timer cdp=1.5
E.) cdp timer 90 F.) timer
cdp 1.5 E 34. Which command will
copy the routers configuration script from RAM to NVRAM? A.) copy running-config startup-config B.) NVRAM
is read-only, so this is not possible. C.) save ram nvram
D.) save ram E.) copy all A 35. Which command
listed below sets the banner message when someone connects to the router? A.)
description # B.) login banner # C.) banner # D.) login description #
E.) message # F.) banner motd
# F 36 What should be the
first command to create an access-list that prevents all users on subnetwork 10.10.128.0, using subnet mask 255.255.192.0,
from being able to telnet anywhere? A.) access-list 101 deny
tcp 10.10.128.0 255.255.0.0 any eq
telnet B.) access-list 101 deny tcp
10.10.128.0 0.0.192.255 any eq telnet C.) access-list 101 deny tcp
10.10.128.0 0.0.128.255 any eq telnet D.) access-list 101 deny tcp
10.10.128.0 0.0.63.255 any eq telnet E.) access-list 101 deny tcp
10.10.128.0 255.255.192.0 any eq telnet F.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.127.255
any eq telnet D Wildcard masks for an
entire subnet are easy to figure out (shortcut): Local Broadcast - Subnet
Mask = Inverted Wildcard Masks 255.255.255.255 -255.255.192. 0
----------------- 0. 0. 63.255 37. What is the default
LMI type for Cisco Routers that are using Frame-Relay? A.) IETF B.) ARPA C.)
SAP D.) Cisco E.) Gandalf5 F.) Q933A D Local Management
Interface (LMI) types are Cisco, ANSI, and Q933A. 38. Which OSI Reference
Layer is concerned with path determination? A.) Network B.) Physical C.)
Transport D.) Session E.) Datalink A The Network layer is
where routing occurs. (If you don't get this question right, there's always a
job at McDonalds!!) 39. Your Ethernet
interface currently has the IP address of 1.1.1.1/24. You would like it to
have a second IP address of 2.2.2.2/24. Which command will do that? A.) ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 B.) ip address 1.1.1.1 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 C.) ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0
secondary D.) This cannot be done, you can only have
1 IP address per physical interface. E.) ip address
2.2.2.2 /24 C 40. C The OSI Presentation
layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, 41. Which global
configuration command will tell the router to load the IOS from ROM at next
boot? A.) This can not be done, only the first file in flash can be used. B.)
boot system flash IOS_filename C.) config-register
0x2102 D.) boot system rom
E.) boot system tftp IOS_filename
tftp_address D 42. What is the default
subnet mask for a TCP/IP Class B address? (2 answers) A.) 255.255.0.0 B.) /8
C.) 255.255.255.0 D.) /24 E.) /16 F.) 255.0.0.0 A E 43. Most routing
protocols recognize that it is never useful to send information about a route
back out the direction from which the original packet came. This is an
example of which routing technology? A.) A The golden rule of Split Horizon:
Do not send any update packet back out the same interface that it was
received or learned from. Poison Reverse is typically used on larger
networks, where a more aggressive routing loop solution is required. 44. You want to set the
telnet password to F 45. Which command will
start the process for creating a Cisco IOS file image backup to a network
file server? A.) copy ios tftp
B.) copy ios network C.) copy tftp flash D.) copy flash tftp E.) copy ios flash D The IOS is stored in
flash. The command format is: copy [source] [destination] 46. How do you
determine which standard IP access lists are applied to interface E0 ? A.) show ip access-list B.)
show access-lists C.) show ip interface e0 D.) show
interface e0 E.) show access-list e0 C To see which specific
protocol access-lists are bound to the interface, Show ip
int e0 or Show ipx int e0 The command 'show access-lists' will display all
access lists that exist, not just the ones bound to a certian
interface. 47. The Cisco Discovery
Protocol (CDP) uses advertisements and discoveries. How does it send this
information? A.) Over a SNAP-capable link. B.) Layer 3 broadcast. C.) CDP
does not use advertisements. D.) Layer 2 multicast.
E.) Layer 4 TCP. F.) SAP. A D The Cisco
proprietary protocol uses multicast, so that only other Cisco devices will
listen to these packets. CDP requires a SNAP-capable link to transmit. 48. In the TCP/IP protocol
stack, there are five classes of addresses. Which class is used for testing?
A.) B B.) A C.) D D.) C
E.) E E A,B,C are valid for
use on the internet D is multicast E is for research 49. Which subnet is the host 200.1.1.67 /26 on? A.) 200.1.1.32 B.)
200.1.1.128 C.) 200.1.1.0 D.) 200.1.1.16 E.) 200.1.1.64 E Shorthand notation
/26 = 2 bits in the last octet = decimal 255.255.255.192 Shortcut: 256 - 192
= 64. Valid subnets are multiples of 64. (64, 128, 192, 256). The closest
value to 67 is between 64 (the network) and 127 (the broadcast). 50. The Datalink layer works with which of the following: A.)
Bits B.) Packets C.) Frames D.) Globules E.) Segments C Physical - bits Datalink - frames Network - packe
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640-507 The CCNA 2.0 contains
65 question for 105 mintues.I
face only one typing question. such like ~Configure RIP~ Ans :
router rip The other is
selectivity. I found the microsoft's MCSE test was 90% the same with this
braindumps, but CCNA's test did not.Only
the basic question about 20% was the same in test. Anyway, rfb's dumps worked. This is dumps which copy from another
site. I wish you can understand all questions and take the CCNA 2.0 Licence. 1.What is the correct
order for the OSI model? P=Presentation, S=Session, D=Datalink,
Ph=Physical, T=Transport, A= Application, N=Network A. P S A PH D N T B. A
P S T N D PH C. PH D N T A S P D. P S A T N D PH Answer B. It is crucial
you not only memorize this and know what each layer does. 2. What is
encapsulation? A. Putting the header
on an incoming frame B. Putting a header on an incoming segment C. Putting a
header on an outgoing frame D. Putting a header on an outgoing bit Answer C. This also
includes trailers and can be put on segments, packets, and frames. 3. Which layer is most
concerned with user applications? A. Application B.
Presentation C. Network D. Physical Answer A. 4. Which of the
following is de-encapsulation? A. Stripping the header
from a frame B. Putting a header on a segment C. Putting a header on a frame
D. Stripping a frame from a link Answer A. This also
includes trailers as in question 2. 5. What layer converts
data into segments? A. Application B.
Presentation C. Transport D. Physical Answer C. 6. What layer converts
data into Packets? A. Network B. Application
C. Physical D. Data Link Answer A. 7. What layer converts
data into Frames? A. Application B.
Physical C. Data Link D. Transport Answer C. 8. What layer converts
data into bits? A. Application B.
Session C. Data Link D. Physical Answer D. All of the
layers need to convert data into something that they can pass down to the
next level, with the exception of the Application layer which hands data to
the Presentation layer. The Presentation layer encrypts, and compresses
before sending it to the Session layer for it's
first conversion. 9. Which layer is most
concerned with getting data from the beginning to the final destination? A. Application B.
Presentation C. Session D. Transport Answer D. The transport
layer is most concerned with reliable transportation from one end to the
other. 10. Which of the
following is not a part of the Session layer? A. Establishing a
session B. Ensuring error free segments C. Ending a session D. Keeping the
sender and receiver from sending a message at the same time Answer B. That is the
job of the Transport layer. 11. Which of the
following is not a job for the presentation layer? Choose 2 A. Data representation
B. Compression C. Dialog management D. Transmission E. Encryption Answer C D. C is
handled by the session layer, and D is handled by the Transport layer 12. What does Peer to
Peer communication involve? A. Each layer
communication with the layer below it B. Each layer communication with layer
above it C. Each layer communicating with adjacent layer in another system D.
Each layer communication with it's corresponding layer in another system Answer D. Answer C
sounds correct also, but adjacent and corresponding are two different things.
The session layer can only communicate with the session layer in another
system for example. 13. Why does the
industry use a layered model? Choose all correct A. When you enhance one
layer it doesn't affect the other layers B. Design and development can be
made in a modular fashion C. Network operations can be simplified D.
Troubleshooting can be simplified. Answer A B C D. 14. Which two of the
following are not from the physical layer? A. SDLC B. V.35 C. HSSI
D. ISDN E. RS-232 Answer A D. SDLC and
ISDN are WAN protocols that function at the data link layer 15. Which two answers
are functions of the OSI model"s network
layer? A. Sequencing of frames
B. Path determination C. Packet switching D. Packet sequencing Answer B C. Sequencing
is done at the data link layer. D is fictional. 16. What is an example
of a MAC address? A. Az32:6362:2434 B.
Sj:2817:8288 C. GGG:354:665 D. A625:cbdf:6525 Answer D. The address
is a 48 bit address which requires 12 Hex digits. A hex digit can't be past
the letter F. Hex stands for 16. 1-9 and A-F make up numbers that are valid. 17. Which of the
following is not part of the data link layer? A. Transports data
across the physical link B. Performs physical addressing C. Performs flow
control D. Determines network topology E. Terminates a session Answer E. This is part
of the session layer 18. Which of the
following are data link protocols? A. HDLC B. FTP C. SQL
D. ISDN E. Token Ring Answer A D E. FTP is an
application and SQL is a session layer protocol. 19. Of the following
address AA77:3827:EF54, which of the following is the vendor portion? A. AA7738 B. 27EF54 C. AA77 D. EF54 Answer A. The vendor
code is how you can tell who made the card. The last 6 digits are the
physical address. 20. Which of the
following are examples of layer 3 addressing? A. 165.33.4.34 B. AA77:3827:EF54 C. HHHH:hg:7654 D. 76 Answer A B. The first
is a TCPIP address and the second is an IPX address 21. What is considered
Layer 3 addressing? A. Data Link Layer B.
Network Layer C. Application Layer D. None of these Answer B. Physical is
Layer 1, then data link, and then Network. This is the same layer that
routers are on. 22. What layer are
Bridges on? A. Data Link B.
Physical C. Application D. Transport Answer A. Bridges
segment networks but are not able to determine addresses like the network
layer does. 23. Repeaters are on
what layer? A. Transport B. Session
C. Physical D. Application Answer C. All repeaters
can do is boost a signal. An active hub is a good example of a repeater. A
switching hub is a good example of layer 3 addressing, since switches go by
network addresses and IPX addresses rather than just boost signals. Bridges
can only read mac addresses, and not the full IPX
or TCPIP addresses. 24. Which of the
following are considered routing protocols? A. OSPF B. IP C. IPX D.
EIGRP E. Token Ring Answer A D. Answers B
and C are routed protocols, whereas A and D are the
protocols that do the routing. This is easily confused. You can remember it
by thinking that the routing protocols that haul the routed protocols are
like a tug ship pulling a barge. The barge is full of data. 25. Which two of the
following are considered connection oriented communication? A. Setup and
maintenance procedures are performed to ensure message delievery
B. A physical circuit exists between two communicating devices C. It is a
best effort type of communication D. A virtual connection exists between the
two Answer A D. B is not a
necessity, and C is not accurate. TCP is connection oriented and UDP is not. 26. Which of the
following are not WAN protocols? Choose 2 A. Frame Relay B. ATM
C. Ethernet D. FDDI E. ISDN Answer C D. Ethernet
and FDDI are LAN protocols. 27. Which of the
following will allow you to view NVRAM's contents? A. show configuration
B. show protocols C. show version D. show running-config
E. show startup-config Answer A E. These show the backup configuration stored in NVRAM.
The other anwsers allow youto
view RAM. 28. Which of the
following contains the OS image? A. Flash B. NVRAM C.
RAM D. Interfaces Answer A. ROM will be
used if Flash is unavailable. NVRAM is the backup configuration, and RAM is
the active configuration 29. Which of the
following indicates the router is in privilege mode? A. Router# B.
Router> C. Router- D. Router* Answer A. Answer B
shows the router in user mode. 30. What does
"show cdp neighbors" not show?
Neighbors_________ A. device id B.
hardware platform C. ios version D. port type and
number Answer C. 31. Which of the
following will show you the clock? A. cl?
B. Cl ?
C. Clock? D. Clock ? Answer D. By typing this the router will finish the command and show the
clock. 32. CDP operates at
which layer? A. Transport B. Network
C. Data link D. Physical Answer C. CDP allows a
network device to exchange frames with other directly connected networked
devices. 33. Which command does
not show two devices are not routing packets between them successfully? A. ping B. show
interface C. trace D. telnet Answer A C D. With
these commands you can tell whether or not you have communication. Show
interface just verifies there is a connection 34. What keystrokes
shows the possible commands in privilege mode? A. help B. h C. ctrl+h D. ? Answer D. Answers A and
B will give a brief description when typed, and C is not valid. 35. Which two items
contain versions of the router's configuration file? A. flash B. nvram C. ram D. rom Answer B C. A and D
contain the OS. 36. Which of the
following commands will allow youto review the
contents of RAM? A. show configuration
B. show protocol C. show version D. show running-config
E. show startup-config Answer B C D. A and E
allow you to see NVRAM. 37. Which of the
following will allow you to add, modify, or delete commands in the startup
configuration file? A. show startup-config B. show running-config
C. configure terminal D. configure memory Answer D. Answer C
allows you to change items in the running configuration file 38. Which command would
be used to restore a configuration file to RAM? ________TFTP running-config A. router#copy
B. router>copy C. router*copy D. router^copy Answer A. You must be
in privilege mode when executing this, which is why you see the # sign. 39. Which of the
following commands will display the running configuration file to a terminal?
A. show running-config B. show router-config C.
router#show flash D. router>show version Answer A. It can only
be shown in privilege mode. 40. If you need to copy
the currently executing configuration file into NVRAM, which command would
you use? A. router#copy
startup-config running-config
B. router#copy startup-config
TFTP C. router#copy running-config
startup-config D. router>copy startup-config running-config Answer C. Answers ABC
show that the router is in privilege mode which is necessary to complete this
action, but only C shows the correct syntax. 41 Which of the
following commands would not set a password on a Cisco router? A. router(config)#enable secret B. router(config-line)#password
test C. router(config)#service encryption password
D. router(config)#enable password Answer C. This command
is used to encrypt passwords in configuration files. 42. Which of the
following would cause a router to boot into the initial configuration dialog
after powering has cycled? A. Someone had copied
the startup configuration file in a TFTP server B. The running configuration
file was copied to the startup configuration file C. It is the first time
router has ever been turned on D. The write erase command was executed
immediately before powering down the router. Answer C and D. These
two scenarios describe what will happen when the router needs to use NVRAM to
boot if it cannot find the configuration file. 43. What would cause a
router to boot from ROM? A. 0x3202 B. 0x2302 C.
0x2101 D. 0x2103 Answer C. A
configuration register of 1 or 0 will cause the router to boot from 44. Where does the
running config file exist? A. NVRAM B. ROM C. RAM
D. Flash Answer C. This file is
erased if the router is reloaded or rebooted. 45. How do you back up
a router? A. router#copy
running-config startup-configuration B. router(config)#copy TFTP flash C. router#copy
flash TFTP D. router#copy flash NVRAM Answer C. You can copy
the file to a TFTP server or other storage device. 46. Which of the
following is not valid? A. router>show
version B. router#show running-config
C. router#show startup-config
D. router#show RAM Answer D. 47. Which of the
following are basic router functions? A. Packet switching B.
Packet filtering C. Path determination D. Rapid convergence Answer A and C. Packets
get switched once they are determined by the router where to go. 48. Which of the
following is not an interior routing protocol? A. RIP B. IGRP C. OSPF
D. BGP Answer D. BGP is an
exterior routing protocol designed to communicate between autonomous systems.
49. Which of the
following routing protocols communicate router information by sending the
state of it's links to all routers in it's domain? A. BGP B. RIP C. IGRP
D. OSPF Answer D. This is a
"link state" routing protocol. RIP and IGRP are
distance vector, and BGP communicates reachability
between domains. 50. What is a problem
caused by distance vector routing protocols? A. Split horizon B.
Route Poison C. Counting to infinity D. Max hop count E. Hold down timers Answer C. Answers ABDE
are counter measures to the counting to infinity problem caused by distance
vector protocols. 51. What router command
will display the routing protocol settings configured on a router? A. show protocol B.
Show routing protocol C. Show ip protocol D. Show
running-config Answer C. This also displays timers, neighbors, and next update
info. 52. What helps mitigate
the problems with link state protocols? Choose 2 A. Minimize router
resource usage. B. Coordinate updates C. Minimum hop counts D. Distance
vectoring Answer A B. 53. Which router
commands will enable RIP for 176.18.0.0? Choose 2 A. router rip B.
network 176.18.0.0 C. network rip D. network rip 176.18.0.0 Answer A B. Router rip
enables rip. Answer B enable the router to advertise
to other routers that it is available. You must be in the global
configuration prompt. 54. Which of the
following is a disadvantage with the link state protocol? Choose 3 A. hold down counters
B. unsynchronized updates C. high network bandwidth usage D. high router
resource usage Answer B C D. As link
state packets flood the network, high network bandwidth can be a problem. 55. Which of the
following exist at the application layer of the TCPIP model? Choose 3 A. SMTP B. FTP C. ICMP
D. RIP E. IGRP Answer A B C. Answers D
and E and routing protocols. 56. Which of the
following translate Fully Qualified Domain Names into IP addresses? A. Wins B. DNS C. SNMP
D. TCP Answer B. 57. Which of the
following translate netbios names? A. Wins B. DNS C. SNMP
D. TCP Answer A. Netbios names are the names of the computers specified in
the identification tab in the network neighborhood properties. 58. Which of the
following is not done by TCP? A. Subnetting
B. Error checking C. Sequencing D. Flow control Answer A. 59. What does UDP and TCP have in common? Choose 2 A. flow control B.
error checking C. checksum D. provide destination and source port numbers Answer C D. UDP doesn't
check for errors. 60. Which of the
following does the network layer do? Choose 2 A. Packet switching B.
Translating C. Path determination D. Convert signals to bits Answer A C. 61. Which of the
following about ARP is true? Choose 2 A. It is in the
application layer B. It is in the network layer C. It maps mac addresses to ip addresses
D. It maps ip addresses to mac
addresses Answer B D. At the same
layer are RARP, ICMP, and IP. RARP does what is in answer C. 62. What protocol in
the transport layer does not guarantee packet delivery? A. TCP B. IP C. IPX D.
UDP Answer D. It does a
best effort delivery, but is faster than TCP. 63. Which of the
following is a class A ip
address? A. 10.14.16.12 B.
127.0.0.1 C. 172.15.42.34 D. 209.123.32.212 Answer A. 64. Which of the
following is a class B address? A. 10.14.16.12 B.
127.0.0.1 C. 172.15.42.34 D. 209.123.32.212 Answer C. 65. Which of the
following is a loop back address? A. 10.14.16.12 B.
127.0.0.1 C. 172.15.42.34 D. 209.123.32.212 Answer B. This is used
to test to see if IP is configured and working properly on your pc, 66. Which of the
following is a non routable ip address? Choose 2 A. 10.10.0.0 B.
192.168.0.1 C. 10.14.12.12 D. 209.32.242 Answer A B. These are
good ip addresses to use behind a fire wall because
they will never be addresses that will be used on the internet. 67. Which of the
following binary numbers represent 10.12.16.6 A.
00001010.00001100.00010000.00000110 B. 00011110.01010000.11001100.00110101 C.
01101010.11001010.01000101.01010011 D. 10001001.11010101.11111111.00000000 Answer A. D cannot be
used at all because you can't have all 1's or 0's 68. What does the process
of AND in do? A. It determines the
value of an ip address B. It determines the port
that TCP will use C. It determines if two ip
addresses are on the same network D. It decides the ip
address subnet Answer C. You do this
by writing out all the ip addresses in binary and
match them against their subnets. After you match up the 1's and 0's you can
decide if they are on the same network by seeing if all the numbers match.
Check the test info page for an example. 69. Which of the
following is a class C address? A. 124.12.13.44 B.
210.24.56.76 C. 127.0.0.1 D. 10.14.12.16 Answer B. An address
above 191 for the first octet shows a class C address. 70. Of the following
address address
11000000.11000000.11110000.10000001, what is true? Choose 2 A. It is a class C address B. It has a host id of 192.224.128 C. It
has a host id 128 D. It is a class B address. Answer A B 71. Which layer is
responsible for providing mechanisms for multiplexing upper-layer
application, session establishment, and tear-down of virtual circuits? A. Application B.
Presentation C. Session D. Transport Answer D. 72. Which layer is
responsible for coordinating communication between systems? A. Application B.
Presentation C. Session D. Physical Answer C. 73. Which layer is responsible
for negotiating data transfer syntax? A. application B.
presentation C. session D. transport Answer B. 74. Which of the
following is a characteristic of a switch, but not of a repeater? A. Switches forward
packets based on the IPX or IP address in the frame. B. Switches forward
packets based only on the IP address in the packet. C. Switches forward
packets based on the IP address in the frame D. Switches forward packets
based on the MAC address in the frame Answer D. Switches are
network device that filters, forwards, and floods frames based on the
destination address of each frame. The switch operates at the data link layer
of the OSI model. Switches use layer 2 addresses to filter the network 75. How does the
cut-through switching technique work? A. The LAN switch
copies the entire frame into its buffers and then looks up the destination
address in its forwarding, table and determines the outgoing interface B. The
switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the
destination address and starts forwarding the packets C. By using broadcast
addresses as source addresses D. By using a Class II repeater in a collision
domain Answer B. Packet
switching approach that streams data through a switch so that the leading
edge of a packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet
finishes entering the input port. A device using cut-through packet switching
reads, processes, and forwards packets as soon as the destination address is
looked up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly packet
switching. 76. How do switches use
store and forward? A. The switch waits
only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address
and starts forwarding the packets B. The LAN switch copies the entire frame
into its buffers and then looks up the destination address in its forwarding,
table and determines the outgoing interface C. By using a class II repeater
in a collision domain D. By using broadcast addresses as source addresses Answer B. Packet-switching
technique in which frames are completely processed before being forwarded out
the appropriate port. This processing includes calculating the CRC and
checking the destination address. In addition, frames must be temporarily
stored until network resources (such as an unused link) are available to
forward the message. Contrast with cut-through packet switching. 77. Choose all of the
following that are needed to support full-duplex Ethernet. A. Multiple paths
between multiple stations on a link B. Full-duplex NIC cards C. Loopback and collision detection disabled D. Automatic
detection of full-duplex operation by all connected stations Answer B C. Capability
for simultaneous data transmission between a sending station and a receiving
station. 78. What two types of
technology does 100BaseT use? A. Switching with
53-byte cells B. CSMA/CD C. IEEE 802.5 D. 802.3u Answer B D. 100-Mbps baseband Fast Ethernet specification using UTP wiring.
Like the 10BaseT technology on which it is based, 100BaseT sends link pulses
over the network segment when no traffic is present. However, these link
pulses contain more information than those used in 10BaseT. Based on the IEEE
802.3 standard. 79. Choose all of the
following that are advantages to segmenting with routers. A. Manageability B.
Flow control C. Explicit packet lifetime control D. Multiple active paths Answers A, B, C, D. All
of the above is correct. A router is a Network layer device that uses one or
more metrics to determine the optimal path along which network traffic should
be forwarded. Routers forward packets from one network to another based on
network layer information 80. Some advantages to
segmenting with Bridges are_____ A. Datagram filtering
B. Manageability C. Reliability D. Scalability Answers B, C, D.
Bridges do not do datagram (packet) filtering. A device that connects and
passes packets between two network segments that use the same communications
protocol. Bridges operate at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI
reference model. In general, a bridge will filter, forward, or flood an
incoming frame based on the MAC address of that frame 81. Which two of the
following describe frame tagging? A. Examines particular
info about each frame B. A unique ID placed in the header of each frame as it
traverses the switch fabric C. A user-assigned ID defined to each frame D.
The building of filter tables Answer B, C. Frame
tagging is used within VLANs to uniquely identify
each frame. 82. Which of the
following describes a full-duplex transmission? A. Uses a single cable
B. Uses a point-to-point connection from the transmitter of the transmitting
station to the receiver of the receiving station C. Data transmission in both
directions, but only one way at a time D. Data transmission in only one direction
Answer B. Capability
for simultaneous data transmission between a sending station and a receiving
station. 83. If a frame is
received at a switch and only the destination hardware address is read before
the frame is forwarded, what type of switching method are you using? A. Cut-through B.
Store-and-forward C. Store-and-cut D. FragmentFree Answer A. Packet
switching approach that streams data through a switch so that the leading
edge of a packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet finishes
entering the input port. A device using cut-through packet switching reads,
processes, and forwards packets as soon as the destination address is looked
up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly packet
switching 84. Which of the
following switching types is the default for Cisco 5505s? A. Cut-through B.
Store-and-forward C. Store-and-cut D. Fragment Free Answer B.
Packet-switching technique in which frames are completely processed before
being forwarded out the appropriate port. This processing includes
calculating the CRC and checking the destination address. In addition, frames
must be temporarily stored until network resources (such as an unused link)
are available to forward the message. 85. What does the
Spanning-Tree Algorithm (STA) do? A. STA is implemented
by STP to prevent loops B. Forward packets through a switch C. Restores lost
frames D. Prevents API duplication in bridged networks Answer A. Algorithm
used by the Spanning-Tree Protocol to create a spanning tree. Sometimes
abbreviated STA. 86. Which can be true
regarding VLANs? (Choose all that apply) A. They are created by
location B. They are created by function C. They are created by group D. They
are created by department Answer A, B, C, D. Virtual LANs are a group of devices on one or more
LANs that are configured (using management software) so that they can
communicate as if they were attached to the same wire, when in fact they are
located on a number of different LAN segments. Because VLANs
are based on logical instead of physical connections, they are extremely
flexible. 87. What is the IEEE
specification for Spanning Tree? A. 802.2u B. 802.3q C.
802.1d D. 802.6 Answer C. SPT is a
bridge protocol that utilizes the spanning-tree algorithm, enabling a learning
bridge to dynamically work around loops in a network topology by creating a
spanning tree. Bridges exchange BPDU messages with other bridges to detect
loops, and then remove the loops by shutting down selected bridge interfaces.
Refers to both the IEEE 802.1d Spanning-Tree Protocol standard and the
earlier Digital Equipment Corporation Spanning-Tree Protocol upon which it is
based. The IEEE version supports bridge domains and allows the bridge to
construct a loop-free topology across an extended LAN. The IEEE version is
generally preferred over the Digital version. Sometimes abbreviated STP 88. Of the three
switching types, which one has the lowest latency? A. Cut-through B. FragmentFree C. Store-and-forward D. None Answer A. Cut-through
packet switching streams data through a switch so that the leading edge of a
packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet finishes
entering the input port. A device using cut-through packet switching reads,
processes, and forwards packets as soon as the destination address is looked
up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly packet
switching. Since no error checking takes place, it has the lowest latency. 89. Of the three
switching types, which one has the highest latency? A. Cut-through B. FragmentFree C. Store-and-forward D. None Answer C.
Store-and-forward packet-switching technique in which frames are completely
processed before being forwarded out the appropriate port. This processing
includes calculating the CRC and checking the destination address. In
addition, frames must be temporarily stored until network resources (such as
an unused link) are available to forward the message. Since frame size can
very in length, latency will then vary. 90. What is the port
number for TCP? A. 6 B. 11 C. 17 D. 45 Answer A. The Network
layer uses port 6h for identifying TCP as the upper layer protocol and port
17h to identify UDP as the upper layer protocol 91. User Datagram
Protocol works at which layer of the DOD model? A. Transport B.
Internet C. Host-to-Host D. Data Link Answer C. User Datagram
Protocol. Connectionless Host-to-host layer protocol in the TCP/IP protocol
stack. UDP is a simple protocol that exchanges datagrams
without acknowledgments or guaranteed delivery, requiring that error
processing and retransmission be handled by other protocols. UDP is defined
in RFC 768. 92. Which protocol
works at the Internet layer and is responsible for making routing decisions? A. TCP B. UDP C. IP D.
ARP Answer C. IP works at
the Internet layer. It looks at the destination network address in the packet
and forwards the packet, based on routing tables and what it determines to be
the best route to the destination 93. Which protocol will
send a message to routers if a network outage or congestion occurs? A. IP B. ARP C. ICMP D.
TCP Answer C. Internet
Control Message Protocol alerts routers if a network outage or congestion
occurs so they can make different routing decision based on that information.
94. Which port numbers
are used by TCP and UDP to set up sessions with other hosts? A. 1-255 B. 256-1022 C.
1023 and above D. 6 and 10 respectively Answer C. In IP
terminology, an upper-layer process that receives information from lower layers. Ports are numbered, and each numbered port is
associated with a specific process. For example, SMTP is associated with port
25. A port number is also known as a well-known address. 95. Which of the
following is true? A. TCP is
connection-orientated; UDP uses acknowledgements only B. Both TCP and UDP are
connection-oriented, but only TCP uses windowing C. TCP is
connection-oriented, but UDP is connectionless D. TCP and UDP both have
sequencing, but UDP is connectionless Answer C. TCP is a
connection-oriented, reliable protocol that uses sequencing and
acknowledgments to make sure packets are delivered properly. UDP is
connectionless, unreliable, and doesn't use sequencing or acknowledgements 96. Which protocol is
used to manage and monitor the network? A. FTP B. SMTP C. SNMP
D. IP Answer C. Simple
Network Management Protocol is a network management protocol used almost
exclusively in TCP/IP networks. SNMP provides a means to monitor and control
network devices, and to manage configurations, statistics collection,
performance, and security 97. Which frame type
use DSAPs and SSAPs to
identify the upper-layer protocol? A. 802.3 B. 802.5 C.
802.2 D. Ethernet_II Answer C. 802.2 frame
type is really an 802.3 frame type with LLC header information 98. A. ARP B. RARP C. DCMP
D. ICMP Answer D. packet
internet groper. ICMP echo message and its reply. Often used in IP networks
to test the reachability of a network device 99. Which protocol
sends redirects back to an originating router? A. ARP B. RARP C. ICMP
D. BootP Answer C. Internet
Control Message Protocol. Network layer Internet protocol that reports errors
and provides other information relevant to IP packet processing. Documented
in RFC 792 100. You have a network
ID of 172.16.0.0 and you need to divide it into multiple subnets. You need
600 host IDs for each subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign that will
allow for growth? A. 255.255.224.0 B.
255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 D. 255.255.252.0 Answer D. 101. You have a network
ID of 172.16.0.0 with eight subnets. You need to allow for the largest
possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign? A. 255.255.224.0 B.
255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 D. 255.255.252.0 Answer B. 224.0:
11100000.00000000: 224 gives us three bits, or six subnets, each with 8190
hosts.240.0: 11110000.00000000: 240 gives us four bits, or 14 subnets, each
with 4094 hosts.248.0: 11111000.00000000: 248 gives us five bits, or 30
subnets, each with 2046 hosts.252.0: 11111100.00000000: 252 gives us six
bits, or 62 subnets, each with 1022 hosts.By using
only eight subnets, we can use 240.0 as a mask, giving us 14 subnets, each
with 4094 hosts. 102. You have a Class A
network address with 60 subnets. You need to add 40 new subnets in the next two
years, but still allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per
subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign? A. 255.240.0.0 B.
255.248.0.0 C. 255.252.0.0 D. 255.254.0.0 Answer D. 240.0.0:
11110000.00000000.00000000: 240 gives us four bits, or 14 subnets, each with
1,048,574 hosts.248.0.0: 11111000.00000000.00000000: 248 gives us five bits,
or 30 subnets, each with 524,286 hosts.252.0.0: 11111100.00000000.00000000:
252 gives us six bits, or 62 subnets, each with 262,142 hosts.254.0.0:
11111110.00000000.00000000: 254 gives us seven bits, or 126 subnets, each
with 131,070 hosts. Only mask 254.0.0 gives us the amount of subnets we need
to allow for maximum growth. 103. You have a Class C
network address of 192.168.19.0 with four subnets. You need the largest
possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign? A. 255.255.255.192 B.
255.255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.248 Answer B. 192:
11000000: 192 gives us 2 bits, or 2 subnets, each with 62 hosts.224: 11100000:
224 gives us three bits, or six subnets, each with 30 hosts.240: 11110000:
240 gives us four bits, or 14 subnets, each with 14 hosts.248: 11111000: 248
gives us five bits, or 30 subnets, each with six hosts.Only
mask 224 gives us more than four subnets with the largest amount of hosts 104. You need to come
up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How many network IDs
must you allow for when you define the subnet mask for the network? A. One for each subnet
B. One for each host ID C. One for each router interface D. One for each WAN
connection Answer A D. Each host
on the network must have a unique IP address. However, you are required to
have only one network ID per network. Each set of hosts must share a common
network ID, as well as connections between networks, which are the WAN
connections. 105. You need to come
up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. Which two factors must
you consider when you define the subnet mask for the network? A. The number of
subnets on the network B. The number of host IDs on each subnet C. The volume
of network traffic on each subnet D. The location of DNS servers E. The
location of default gateways Answer A, B. When
deciding on an IP scheme, you need to understand the amount of subnets and
the amount of hosts per subnet. 106. You need to come
up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How many host IDs must
you allow for when you define the subnet mask for the network? A. One for each subnet
B. One for each router interface C. One for each WAN connection D. One for
each network adapter installed on each host Answer B D. Host ID are not just PC's, MAC's and
Unix stations. Anything that has an interface is host or network device. 107. You have an IP
address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class
of address, subnet address, and broadcast address? A. Class A, Subnet
172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127. B. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0,
Broadcast address 172.16.13.255 C. Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast
address 172.16.255.255 D. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address
172.16.13.127 Answer D. Class B,
Subnet 13, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127. The
valid range for hosts is 172.16.13.1 to 172.16.13.126. 108. If you have a
22-bit subnet mask, how many subnets and how many hosts do you have? A. 8190 subnets, 4096
hosts B. 4,194,302 subnets, 2 hosts C. 2,096,138 subnets 6 hosts D. 16,384
subnets, 2046 hosts Answer B. A 22-bit
subnet mask would be 255.255.255.252. On the Cisco test, they do not count
the default mask. The only class of address that could take a 22-bit mask is
a class A. Start with 255 and add 22 bits. This
gives you two bits for the hosts, or 2 hosts per subnet. |