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Name: 
 

APES Semester I Exam Practice 07


Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
All of the following illustrate exponential growth except
a.
the king who promised to double the number of grains of wheat he put on each successive square of a checkerboard.
b.
human population growth.
c.
driving 10 mph for one minute; then 20 mph for one minute; then 30 mph for one minute; then 40 mph for one minute.
d.
money in a savings account.
 

 2. 
The market value in current dollars of all goods and services produced within a country for final use during a year is the
a.
gross national product.
b.
gross domestic product.
c.
per capital GNP.
d.
per capita GDP.
 

 3. 
Which of the following generalizations about developing countries is true?
a.
They make up about one-tenth of the world's population.
b.
They have high average GNPs per person.
c.
They include the United States, Canada, Japan, the former Soviet Union, and European countries.
d.
They use about 12% of the world's resources.
 

 4. 
Three countries which together account for more than half of the world's economic output include all of the following except
a.
the United States.
b.
the former Soviet Union.
c.
Japan.
d.
Germany.
 

 5. 
You are visiting a developing country. Compared to a developed country, you would expect to find a
a.
higher percentage of the population with safe drinking water.
b.
higher percentage of the population under age 15.
c.
higher average life expectancy.
d.
more urban population.
 

 6. 
At least ten million people die annually from
a.
cancer and diabetes.
b.
heart attacks and strokes.
c.
malnutrition, related diseases, and contaminated drinking water.
d.
accidents.
 

 7. 
Peter awoke to the early morning alarm clock. He jumped out of bed and quickly ran through a morning shower. He happily consumed two eggs, orange juice, a tall glass of milk, and toast. Flipping on the television, his ears tuned to CNN while his eyes scanned the morning headlines. He ran for the train and started his morning work an hour later. Peter was using
a.
both ecological and economic resources.
b.
ecological but not economic resources.
c.
economic but not ecological resources.
d.
neither economic nor ecological resources.
 

 8. 
Which of the following best describes the concept of environmental degradation?
a.
using solar power at a rapid rate
b.
using oil
c.
cutting trees for wood products
d.
letting agricultural runoff cause oxygen depletion and fish kills downstream
 

 9. 
Which of the following statements best illustrates the tragedy of the commons?
a.
A factory pollutes a river as much as the law allows.
b.
Some levels of pollution are life threatening.
c.
Some activities harm the environment, but others do not.
d.
Irrigated cropland can be ruined by salinization.
 

 10. 
You generally buy and eat microwave dinners. After dinner, cardboard tops and plastic trays remain. The least effective way to deal with this type of solid-waste problem would be to
a.
collect the components and incinerate them so they don't take up landfill space.
b.
prepare large quantities of food and divide it into your own reusable microwave containers.
c.
donate the plastic containers to the local nursery schools to use with preschoolers.
d.
recycle the components.
 

 11. 
Which of the following statements does not characterize relationships between hunter-gatherers and the environment?
a.
They used potentially renewable resources.
b.
They exploited their environment for food and other resources.
c.
They caused major environmental impacts.
d.
Population size was low.
 

 12. 
All of the following probably characterized the first agricultural communities except
a.
slash-and-burn cultivation.
b.
specialized farming of one crop.
c.
shifting cultivation.
d.
subsistence agriculture.
 

 13. 
Slash-and-burn cultivation
a.
leaves ashes from burned vegetation, which add plant nutrients to the soil.
b.
contours and terraces the land.
c.
ultimately leads to desertification.
d.
rotates crops yearly.
 

 14. 
Which of the following human-resource relationships does not characterize a shift from hunter-gatherer to agricultural societies?
a.
Use of domesticated animals increased average energy use per person.
b.
Population increased with the increased food supply.
c.
People used muscle, sun, and coal as energy sources.
d.
People began accumulating material goods.
 

 15. 
A major stimulus for the Industrial Revolution was
a.
the bubonic plague.
b.
European wars.
c.
a shortage of wood.
d.
poverty.
 

 16. 
The decade ____ is considered the golden age of conservation.
a.
1890-1900
b.
1900-1910
c.
1910-1920
d.
1920-1930
 

 17. 
Gifford Pinchot used ____ principles to manage America's renewable forest resources.
a.
sustainable-yield and multiple use
b.
sustainable-yield and reserved-use
c.
multiple-use and highest-use
d.
multiple-use and maximum-yield
 

 18. 
The Sierra Club was developed by ____ in 1892.
a.
Theodore Roosevelt
b.
John Muir
c.
Gifford Pinchot
d.
Aldo Leopold
 

 19. 
The colored bars showing kilocalories used per person per day in different societies through the course of history form a
a.
mathematical model.
b.
mental model.
c.
conceptual model.
d.
graphic model.
 

 20. 
Human events which affect the environment are generally characterized by
a.
predictability in what happens because the environment is diverse.
b.
many experiences upon which to base our generalizations.
c.
long delays between events and responses.
d.
immediate feedback.
 

 21. 
The atomic number is the number of
a.
atoms in a molecule.
b.
protons in an atom.
c.
neutrons in a molecule.
d.
electrons in an atom.
 

 22. 
The most common form of energy released from radioisotopes is
a.
gamma rays.
b.
cosmic rays.
c.
X rays.
d.
ultraviolet rays.
 

 23. 
Which of the following is a likely product of a fusion reaction?
a.
alpha particles
b.
deuterium
c.
tritium
d.
helium
 

 24. 
Biodiversity emerges from
a.
mutations.
b.
natural selection.
c.
extinction.
d.
all of these answers.
 

 25. 
When incoming solar radiation is converted to heat, it is least likely to be trapped in the atmosphere by
a.
water vapor.
b.
carbon dioxide.
c.
methane.
d.
nitrogen gas.
 

 26. 
All of the following are consumers except
a.
herbivores.
b.
carnivores.
c.
omnivores.
d.
autotrophs.
 

 27. 
Organisms that feed on dead organisms are called
a.
producers.
b.
carnivores.
c.
autotrophs.
d.
scavengers.
 

 28. 
The ecological efficiency at each trophic level of a particular ecosystem is 20%. If the green plants of the ecosystem capture 100 units of energy, about _____ units of energy will be available to support herbivores, and about _____ units of energy will be available to support carnivores.
a.
120; 140
b.
120; 240
c.
20; 2
d.
20; 4
 

 29. 
The amount of water vapor found in a certain mass of air is the
a.
relative humidity.
b.
absolute humidity.
c.
average humidity.
d.
air pressure.
 

 30. 
Water covers about ____% of Earth's surface.
a.
51
b.
61
c.
71
d.
81
 

 31. 
Which element could be called the "currency for energy exchange in living systems?"
a.
nitrogen
b.
oxygen
c.
carbon
d.
sulfur
 

 32. 
The nitrogen cycle is considered to be a
a.
gaseous cycle.
b.
sedimentary cycle.
c.
hydrologic cycle.
d.
double cycle.
 

 33. 
Which of the following statements about human alteration of the nitrogen cycle is false?
a.
Large quantities of nitric oxide are released into the atmosphere when fuel is burned.
b.
Nitric oxide can be converted in the atmosphere to nitric acid, which contributes to acid deposition.
c.
Eating protein puts "dead ends" in the nitrogen cycle.
d.
Soil can be depleted of nitrate and ammonium ions by harvesting nitrogen-rich crops.
 

 34. 
To which of the following cycles is guano an important component?
a.
phosphorous
b.
carbon
c.
hydrologic
d.
sulfur
 

 35. 
Ecosystem services include
a.
provision of energy and food sources.
b.
detoxification of pollutants.
c.
population control of pests.
d.
all of these answers.
 

 36. 
Evidence for the evolution of life comes from
a.
chemical experiments.
b.
fossils.
c.
chemical analysis of ancient rocks and core samples.
d.
all of these answers.
 

 37. 
The source of energy that probably contributed least to the synthesis of biological chemicals on primitive Earth is
a.
ultraviolet light.
b.
hydropower.
c.
radioactivity.
d.
lightning.
 

 38. 
The most likely sequence for the biological evolution of life is
a.
aerobic prokaryotes-photosynthetic prokaryotes-anaerobic prokaryotes-eukaryotes-multicellular organisms.
b.
photosynthetic prokaryotes-anaerobic prokaryotes-aerobic prokaryotes-eukaryotes-multicellular organisms.
c.
anaerobic prokaryotes-photosynthetic prokaryotes-aerobic prokaryotes-eukaryotes-multicellular organisms.
d.
eukaryotes-anaerobic prokaryotes-photosynthetic prokaryotes-aerobic prokaryotes-multicellular organisms.
 

 39. 
You are a fossil hunter. Which of the following are you least likely to find in a fossil?
a.
bone
b.
leaves
c.
teeth
d.
muscle
 

 40. 
A change in the genetic composition of a population over successive generations is called
a.
emigration.
b.
mutation.
c.
natural selection.
d.
evolution.
 

 41. 
The term used to describe the long-term, large-scale evolutionary changes among groups of species is
a.
coevolution.
b.
microevolution.
c.
convergent evolution.
d.
macroevolution.
 

 42. 
Which of the following is false? Coevolution
a.
occurs when interacting species exert selective pressures on each other.
b.
occurs between plants and the herbivores that eat them.
c.
may play a role in the evolution of camouflage.
d.
leads to competitive relationships.
 

 43. 
Patterns of speciation and extinction are least likely to be affected by
a.
climatic changes.
b.
continental drift.
c.
meteorites crashing into the earth.
d.
changes in the weather.
 

 44. 
Biologists estimate that over ____% of the species that have ever lived are now extinct.
a.
69
b.
79
c.
89
d.
99
 

 45. 
Which of the following statements about extinctions is false?
a.
Biologists estimate that 99% of all the species that have ever existed are now extinct.
b.
Mass extinctions raise the extinction rate above the background extinction rate.
c.
Most mass extinctions are believed to be due to global climatic changes.
d.
Earth has experienced over a dozen great mass extinctions.
 

 46. 
Climate is influenced by
a.
the amount of incoming solar radiation.
b.
Earth's rotation.
c.
the tilt of Earth's axis.
d.
all of these answers.
 

 47. 
Which of the following are examples of evergreen plants?
a.
maples and oaks
b.
algae and seaweed
c.
bacteria
d.
pines and cedars
 

 48. 
Succulent plants are most likely to be found in
a.
aquatic habitats.
b.
cold ecosystems.
c.
high altitudes.
d.
deserts.
 

 49. 
Nights in deserts are cold because
a.
winds originate at the North and South Poles.
b.
the relative humidity is very high.
c.
there is a poor insulating effect from the desert's dry air.
d.
nights are very cloudy.
 

 50. 
Desert ecosystems are threatened least by
a.
groundwater depletion.
b.
overgrazing.
c.
a nomadic lifestyle.
d.
irrigation and salinization.
 

 51. 
You read the data records of a field ecologist who reports the following varieties of species: beetles, spiders, grasshoppers, many insects and invertebrates, earthworms, prairie dogs, rabbits, squirrels, meadowlarks, coyotes, foxes, hawks. You conclude that the field ecologist is located in a
a.
desert.
b.
tropical grassland.
c.
temperate grassland.
d.
Arctic tundra.
 

 52. 
If you were to make a census in a temperate deciduous forest in the United States, the most likely dominant mammal species would be
a.
deer.
b.
bears.
c.
foxes.
d.
wildcats.
 

 53. 
There are fewer species in the coniferous forests than in the deciduous forests because few species can survive the
a.
bright sunlight.
b.
excessive moisture.
c.
alkaline soils.
d.
winters, when soil moisture is frozen.
 

 54. 
Humans effect mountain biomes by
a.
expanding populations who may use the land in an unsustainable way.
b.
ecotourism and recreation.
c.
increase air pollution from urban areas.
d.
all of these answers.
 

 55. 
The most probable chain of cause and effect contributing to patterns of earth's biomes is
a.
Incoming solar energy and the earth's geometry create climate patterns which create air and ocean currents which create biome patterns.
b.
Incoming solar energy and the earth's geometry create air and ocean currents which create climate patterns which create biome patterns.
c.
Incoming solar energy and the earth's geometry create climate patterns which create biome patterns which create air and ocean currents.
d.
Air and ocean currents determine incoming solar energy and the earth's geometry which create climate patterns which create biome patterns.
 

 56. 
Thriving coral reefs require
a.
cloudy water.
b.
cool water.
c.
dissolved oxygen and nutrients.
d.
salinity that fluctuates with the tides.
 

 57. 
All of the following threaten the survival of coral reefs except
a.
increased ultraviolet light from stratospheric ozone depletion.
b.
eroded soil from deforestation and poor land management.
c.
chemical pollution.
d.
predation by sharks.
 

 58. 
Which of the following ecosystems is least likely found in a temperate coastal wetland?
a.
bay
b.
salt flat
c.
mud flat
d.
mangrove swamp
 

 59. 
Organisms of the intertidal zone
a.
are constantly being swept away.
b.
are exposed to constant salinity levels.
c.
are exposed to both air and underwater conditions.
d.
must avoid drowning at high tide.
 

 60. 
An ecologist would expect a temperate lake to demonstrate overturns in
a.
spring and summer.
b.
spring and fall.
c.
spring and winter.
d.
fall and summer.
 

 61. 
An ecologist would expect to find a thermocline in a temperate lake in
a.
spring and summer.
b.
spring and fall.
c.
summer and winter.
d.
fall and summer.
 

 62. 
Most of the wetlands that are lost are used for
a.
mining.
b.
urban development.
c.
agriculture.
d.
forestry.
 

 63. 
Flying foxes are now listed as endangered because
a.
they congregate and are easy targets.
b.
they are hunted.
c.
of deforestation.
d.
of all of these answers.
 

 64. 
Flying foxes are recognized as a
a.
thriving species.
b.
alien species.
c.
native species.
d.
keystone species.
 

 65. 
Where is most of the world's biodiversity?
a.
high-latitude forests
b.
middle-latitude grasslands
c.
low-latitude forests
d.
polar grasslands
 

 66. 
The giant panda is an endangered species because
a.
it is a specialized species, eating mostly bamboo, which has periodic diebacks.
b.
the pandas are separated into small, isolated populations.
c.
of low birth rate and litter size.
d.
all of these answers.
 

 67. 
Species that normally live and thrive in a particular ecosystem are known as
a.
nonnative species.
b.
native species.
c.
keystone species.
d.
specialist species.
 

 68. 
Sea otters, dung beetles, and gopher tortoises are generally considered to be
a.
nonnative species.
b.
native species.
c.
keystone species.
d.
specialist species.
 

 69. 
Interspecific competition can be avoided by
a.
eating at different times.
b.
resource partitioning.
c.
character displacement.
d.
all of these answers.
 

 70. 
Prey are least likely to defend themselves against predators by
a.
camouflage.
b.
acute senses of sight and smell.
c.
protective shells.
d.
pursuit and ambush.
 

 71. 
Of the following relationships, the one most likely to be described as a positive feedback loop is
a.
competition.
b.
predation.
c.
mutualism.
d.
parasitism.
 

 72. 
All of the following illustrate the relationship of mutualism except
a.
lichens.
b.
epiphytes.
c.
ants and acacias.
d.
Rhizobium bacteria in root nodules of legumes.
 

 73. 
The relationship between clownfish and sea anemones is
a.
competition.
b.
predation.
c.
parasitism.
d.
mutualism.
 

 74. 
Which of the following statements about primary succession is false?
a.
It is initiated by pioneer species.
b.
It often involves species changing the environment so that they can no longer thrive and must be replaced by other species.
c.
It generally results in more complex, more self-sustaining stages than the preceding ones.
d.
It is an orderly progression from pioneer species to climax species indicative of the region being studied.
 

 75. 
Emigration
a.
is one-way movement of individuals into the area of an established population.
b.
is one-way movement of individuals into an uninhabited area.
c.
is one-way movement of individuals out of a particular population to another area.
d.
is the repeated departure and return of individuals to and from a population area.
 

 76. 
Biotic potential is determined by
a.
reproductive age span.
b.
litter size.
c.
how many offspring survive to reproductive age.
d.
all of these answers.
 

 77. 
A population will increase if
a.
natality decreases.
b.
mortality increases.
c.
the biotic potential increases.
d.
the environmental resistance increases.
 

 78. 
Humans have extended Earth's carrying capacity for the human species by
a.
controlling many diseases.
b.
using energy resources at a rapid rate.
c.
using material resources at a rapid rate.
d.
all of these answers.
 

 79. 
Carrying capacity is determined by
a.
climatic changes.
b.
predation.
c.
interspecific competition.
d.
all of these answers.
 

 80. 
Wolves controlling deer populations are an example of
a.
bottom-up population control
b.
top-down population control
c.
producer-level control
d.
predator control
 

 81. 
Which of the following connections among population cycle, survival strategies, and survivorship curves would you most expect to see?
a.
boom-and-bust; K-strategist; early-loss
b.
boom-and-bust; r-strategist; early-loss
c.
stable; r-strategist; early-loss
d.
stable; K-strategist; early-loss
 

 82. 
Which of the following questions is a conservation biologist least likely to ask?
a.
How can ecosystem integrity be maintained?
b.
How does sulfur cycle in this ecosystem?
c.
What is the status of the natural populations in this ecosystem?
d.
What ecosystem services are we in danger of losing in this ecosystem?
 

 83. 
The World Health Organization controlled sylvatic plague in Borneo (Brunei) by
a.
spraying with pesticide.
b.
parachuting healthy cats into the area.
c.
introducing lizards.
d.
burning all the huts that housed infected people.
 

 84. 
Which of the following is not one of the basic lessons from nature?
a.
Sunlight is the source of energy which sustains ecosystems.
b.
Soil, water, air, and organisms are renewed through natural processes.
c.
All populations of organisms except humans are kept in check by natural means.
d.
Energy is required to maintain energy flow and recycle chemicals.
 

 85. 
Which of the following principles would most environmentalists not want to see being a guide to governance of public lands?
a.
All users of public lands should be responsible for correcting any environmental damage they cause.
b.
Protection of biodiversity and ecological integrity should be the most important goal.
c.
Public lands should be used to enrich individual citizens to make a strong U.S. economy.
d.
No one should be given subsidies or tax breaks for extracting resources on public lands.
 

 86. 
The takings/property rights movement
a.
gives local zoning, land-use, and environmental plans precedence over federal laws.
b.
requires the federal government to compensate landowners for property values diminished because of regulations.
c.
greatly weakens federal environmental legislation.
d.
is described by all of these answers.
 

 87. 
The sagebrush rebellion was led by
a.
politicians wanting pork-barrel legislation.
b.
ranchers wanting unrestricted grazing on federal rangeland.
c.
shepherds and cattlemen wanting bounties and other legislation that would reduce the populations of coyotes, mountain lions, and eagles.
d.
conservationists wanting some governmental controls over erosion.
 

 88. 
Clear-cutting
a.
reduces biodiversity.
b.
makes trees bordering the clear-cut area more vulnerable to being blown down by windstorms.
c.
increases the size of a harvest.
d.
all of these answers.
 

 89. 
_____ percent of the world's people belong to indigenous cultures.
a.
One
b.
Five
c.
Ten
d.
Fifteen
 

 90. 
Japan has a good environmental record on all of the following except
a.
air pollution controls.
b.
high energy efficiency and recycling rates.
c.
protecting endangered species and tropical forests.
d.
donating aid to developing countries.
 

 91. 
Currently, there are about _____ established biosphere reserves.
a.
15
b.
150
c.
250
d.
350
 

 92. 
Good wilderness management would do all of the following except
a.
extensively patrol the accessible, popular areas.
b.
offer permits to selected areas for those who have demonstrated wilderness skills.
c.
leave some areas undisturbed by humans.
d.
allow citizens to camp anywhere at their own risk.
 

 93. 
How much does it cost the global fishing industry each year to catch $70 billion worth of fish?
a.
$50 billion
b.
$75 billion
c.
$100 billion
d.
$125 billion
 

 94. 
Which of the following devices has saved many thousands of sea turtles from shrimp trawlers?
a.
gill nets
b.
shrimp rakers
c.
turtle exclusion devices
d.
sonic devices that scare turtles away
 

 95. 
Under the International Whaling Commission's ban on whaling, who is still allowed to harvest whales?
a.
Japanese
b.
Russians
c.
Eskimos
d.
Irish
 

 96. 
The best long-range strategy to reduce beach erosion is
a.
building groins and seawalls.
b.
preventing development on beach areas or allowing development only behind protective dunes.
c.
importing sand.
d.
extensive building on barrier beaches.
 

 97. 
What are the high seas?
a.
tidal waves generated by earthquakes
b.
large storm-generated waves
c.
ocean areas beyond any country's legal jurisdiction
d.
ocean areas policed by international forces
 

 98. 
What is the largest wetlands restoration project?
a.
the Okeefenokee
b.
the Everglades
c.
Dismal Swamp
d.
Chesapeake Bay
 

 99. 
Activities allowed in the national Wild and Scenic Rivers System include all of the following except
a.
camping.
b.
canoeing.
c.
motor boating.
d.
fishing.
 

 100. 
Which of the following do we know the least about?
a.
deep space
b.
deep ocean basins
c.
tropical rainforests
d.
Antarctica
 



 
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