1.  What is another name for osteogenesis imperfecta?  Brittle BoneDisease

2.      How is achondroplasia treated?  Growth Hormone

3.      What factors increase the risk for osteoporosis? 

  1. total bone mass is an important determinant of the subsequent risk of osteoporosis (genetic factors, physical activity, diet, and hormonal status)
  2. age-related changes in bone density occur in all individuals and clearly contribute to the development of osteoporosis in both sexes—age-related decrease in osteoblastic activity
  3. hormonal factors play a significant role in the development of osteoporosis, especially in postmenopausal women—estrogen deficiency may cause bone loss b increasing bone loss as well as by decreasing bone synthesis
  4. genetic factors—vit D receptor molecule (VDR is the Vit D receptor)
  5. mechanical factors—weight bearing
  6. the role of diet—calcium (intake before puberty) and vit D

4.      What happens to bone when parathyroid hormone is increased? 

·        1° is autonomous secretion

·        2° is underlying renal disease—problems w/Vit D synthesis and activation leading to decrease in calcium absorption from the gut—chronic renal failure include metabolic acidosis and aluminum deposition in bone

·        both cause significant skeletal changes related to abnormal osteoclastic activity

·        increased osteoclastic activity w/bone resorption

·        cortical and trabecular bone is replaced by loose connective tissue eps subperiosteal

·        increased numbers of osteoclasts and accompanying erosion of bone surfaces

·        "brown tumor" of hyperparathyroidism—marrow space has ­ amounts of fibrovascular tissue; hemosiderin from episodes of hemorrhage; collections of osteocytes and fibroblasts form a mass

5.      What conditions are associated w/

  1. Brodie's abscess—chronic osteomyelitis—sequela of acute infection; repair reaction w/ osteoclast activation, fibroblastic proliferation, and new bone formation; necrotic bone (sequestrum) may be resorbed by osteoclastic activity; rim of reactive bone (involucrum); a well-defined rim of sclerotic bone surrounds a resdual abscesss
  2. Brown tumor—(hyperparathyroidism) aggregates of osteoclasts, reactive giant cells, and hemorrhagic debris occasionally form masses that may be mistaken for neoplasms
  3. Cold abscess mosaic bone deposition—Paget's Disease—pathognomonic—deposition of bone results in  thickening of cortical and trabecular bone laid down in an erratic pattern; jigsaw puzzle appearance

6.      Osteomyelitis from salmonella is associated w/what condition?  Sickle Cell Disease

7.      Involucrum—seen in Paget's disease (chronic osteomyelitis) large sequestra of acute infection after repair reaction that induces osteoclast activation, fibroblastic proliferation, and new bone formation—refers to the surrounding rim of reactive bone

Sequestrum—residual necrotic bone in chronic osteomyelitis

8.      What may cause osteitis deformans?  (Paget's Disease)—infectious etilogy; paramyxovirus-like particles and antigens have been identified w/in osteoclasts; necleic acid sequencesof the canine distemper virus related to measles virus have been identified; a slow viral infection that induces the synthesis of IL-6 which recruits osteoclasts

9.      Benign and Malignant Bone Tumors

Benign

·        Osteoma

·        Osteoid osteoma

·        Osteoblastoma

·        Osteochondroma

·        Chondroma

       Malignant

·        1° osteosarcoma

·        2° osteosarcoma

·        chondrosarcoma

        Miscellaneous

·        Giant cell tumor

·        Ewing's tumor

10.  Who tends to get osteosarcoma? 

·        Males are affected more than females

·        1° is 10-20 yrs

·        2° is > 40yr  

·        From what cell type is it formed?  Malignant mesenchymal neoplasmsin which the neoplatic cells produce osteoid  

·        Where does it tend to occur?  1° malignant tumor of bone, occur in 2nd decade of life, found in around the knee, specifically the distal femur and proximal tibia  

·        What is the name of that characterisitc periosteal elevation?  Codman's Triangle

11.  Study figure 21-13.  Be able to differentiate OA and RA by features

·        Rheumatoid arthritis

·        Inflammation

·        Pannus—highly vascularized, inflammatory, reduplicated synovium that covers the articular cartilaginous surfaces

·        Eroding cartilage

·        Fibrous ankylosis

·        Bony ankylosis

·        Osteoarthritis

·        Bony spur

·        No ankylosis

·        Subchondral cyst

·        Subchondral sclerosis

·        Osteophyte

·        Thinned and fibrillated cartilage

12.  What are the long term effects of gout on the body.  Who gets it and what are tophi?  Sickle Cell anemia.  Tophi—large, irregular deposits of chalky white sodium urate and are deposited on the articular cartilage and adjacent joint capsule.  Provoke a chronic granulomatous inflammatory reaction.  Recurrent episodes of arthritis involve increasing numbers of joints and eventually lead to permanent joint deformity.  Chronic tophi may cause significnat additional soft tissue deformity.  Tophi are usually painless, despite the tendency of advanced lesions to ulcerate.  Acute urate nephropathy may cause acute renal failure; chronic disease is associated w/recurrent episodes of pyelonephritis and chronic renal failure.

13.   Identify the characteristics of myasthenia gravis. 

·        Muscle weakness—repeated contraction or stimulation

·        Ptosis (drooping eyelids) and double vision

·        Difficulty chewing and holding head upright

·        Speech w/nasal quality

·        Respiratory muscle leading to failure

14.   What is the underlying defect in Duchene & Becker muscular dystrophy?

·        X-linked hereditary muscular dystrophy

·        Caused by the absence of structural protein termed dystrophin

·        Expressed in muscles, brain and peripheral nerves

·        Impaired contractile activity

15.   What are the complications for cerebral edema

·        Brain paenchymal edema

·        Vasogenic edema—integrity of the normal blood-brain barrier is disrupted allowing fluid to escape from the vasculature into the interstitial space

·        Cytotoxic edema—increase intrcellular fluid 2° to cellular injury (hypoxic-ischemic insult)

·        Gyri are flattened

·        Intervening sulci narrowed

·        Ventricular cavities compressed

·        Herniation may occur

·        transtentorial (uncinate, mesial temporal) herniation—medial temporal lobe is compressed against the free margin of the tentorium cerebelli

·        subfalcine (cingulate gyrus) herniation—unilateral or asymmetric expansion of the cerebral hemisphere displaces the cingulate gyrus under the falx cerebri

·        tonsillar herniation—displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum

16.  What is the most common cause of infarcts, where do they tend to occur, and what is the significance of a transient ischemic attack? 

·        Caused by local cirulatory disturbances

·        Most common form of cerebrovascular disease

·        Account for 80% of cerebrovascular accidents (strokes)

·        Cerebral atherosclerosis is the most common cause and factors that predispose to atherosclerosis (hypertension,diabetes mellitus, and smoking)

·        Affects larger vessels like internal carotid, proximal middle cerebral, and basilar

·        Blocked by thrombosis of an atherosclertoic arterial segment near carotid bifurcation or in basilar artery

·        Emboli  from the heart and proximal segment of carotid arteries

·        Location and distribution of cerebral infarcts is influenced by a number of factors

·        Site of arterial occulsion

·        Time over which an occulsive event develops

·        Presence or absence of arterial anastomoses (circle of Willis)

·        Systemic perfusion pressure

·        Transient ischemic attacks

·        Self-limited episodes of vascular obstruction by atheromatous emboli and/or platelet-fibrin aggregates

·        Predictor of subsequent infarcts

·        Infarcts occur most commonly in areas supplied by branches of the middle cerebral artery

17.   What type of aneurysm is associated w/hypertension?  Where does bleeding occur w/rupture? 

·        Most common cause of spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage is rupture of a saccular aneurysm

·        The most common, underlying cause of 1° brain parenchymal hemorrhage

·        Abnormalities in the vessel walls like acclerated atherosclerosis in large arteries, hyaline arteriolosclerosis in smaller vessles, necrosis of arterioles

·        Minute aneurysms—Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms

·        Commonly in the basal ganglion

18.  What is an A-V malformation, cavernous angioma?

·        A-V malformation

·        Most common congential vascular abnormalities in the brain

·        Significant hemorrhage

·        Cerebral hemisphere and middle meningeal artery

·        Spontaneous hemorrhage

·        Saccular aneurysms in 10% of AVMs

·        Cavernous angiomas

·        Spontaneous intracranial hemorrhage and seizures

·        Composed of ectatic, thick-walled venous channels separated by dense fibrous stroma

19.  Describe the differences b/w an epidural and subdural hematoma.  Which is more dangerous, what are they associated w/and in what setting does brain atrophy effect either?

·        Epidural hematoma

·        Rupture of a meningeal artery w/skull fracture

·        Middle meningeal artery b/w dura matera dn squamous portion of temporal bone

·        Compress the subjacent dura and flatten underlying brain parenchyma

·        Can cause uncal, gyral, and cerebellar tonsillar herniation

·        Brain stem compression

·        Death

·        A significant number of patients w/epidural hematomas have a "lucid interval" immediately after injury, followed by progressive loss of consciousness

·        Subdural hematoma

·        Caused by disruption of bridging veins from the surface of the brain to the dural sinuses

·        Rapid changes in head velocity

·        Cause tears in the delicate bridging veins as they penetrate the overlying dura mater

·        Occur most often over cerebral convexities and vary from small hemorrhages to massive lesions

·        Acute or chronic (clotted or liquefied blood clots)

20.  What is the result of diffuse axonal injury? Can result in post traumatic dementia, hypoxic injury, and vegetative state.

21.  What are the CSF results in bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis?

·        Bacterial (leptomeningitis)—turbid, contains predominantly neutrophils, protein is elevated owing to increased vascular permeability and glucose levels are markedly decreased b/c of impaired transport of glucose into CSF and metabolic activity of neutrophils, Organisms visible in Gram stain

·        Viral—contains predominantly lymphocytes; protein concentrations are elevated to a modest degree; glucose levels are normal

22.  What are some examples of spongiform encephalitis?  Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, kuru, Gerstmann-Straussler syndrome, fatal familial insomnia, scarpie and "mad cow"; infectious prions are a modified form of a normal structural protein found in the mammalian nervous system

23.  What is the most aggressive and least aggressive form of astrocytomas? 

·        Most aggressive—glioblastoma multiforme

·        Least aggressive—pilocytic astrocytomas (kids)

24.  What tumor arises w/in the central canal of the spinal cord? Ependymomas

25.  What are psammoma bodies?  Meningiomas; calcification; concentrically laminated, calcified granules

26.  What is the most common demyelinating disease of the CNS?  Multiple Sclerosis; waxing and waning neurologic abnormalities of CNS

27.  What is confabulation and what condition is it associated w/? It is the filling in of gaps in memory with fictitious things or events that are believed to be true by the patient and is often associated w/ Wernicke-Korsakoff’s syndrome (thiamine deficiency) and specifically with Korsakoff’s psychosis.

28.  What is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly?  Alzheimer's disease

29.  What is paralysis agitans, Lewy bodies, neurofibrillary tangles?

Paralysis agitans—idiopathic Parkinson's disease; degenerative disorder involving the dopamine-secreting neurons of the substantia nigra and locus ceruleus

Lewy bodies—concentrically laminated, eosinophilic, intracytoplamic inclusions

Neurofibrillay tangles—course, filamentous aggregates w/in the cytoplasm of neurons; found in the neocortex, hippocampus, basal forebrain and parts of brain stem

30.    What is the interest in b-amloid in Alzheimer's disease?  Deposition of amyloid, dervied from breakdown of a protein; prominent component of both the neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques found in the brains of AD patients; present w/in the walls of cerebral blood vessels; can be toxic to neurons in cell cultures

 

31.    Parkinson's disease—a disturbance in motor function by rigidity, expressionless facies, stooped posture, gait disturbances, slowing of voluntary movements, and a characteristic "pill-rolling" tremor.  Disturbance of dopaminergic pathways connecting the substantia nigra to the basal ganglia

Guillan-Barre syndrome—one of the most common life threatening diseases of the PNS; etiology is unknown, may develop after viral prodrome, Mycoplasma infection, allergic reaction or surgical procedure—immunologic basis; rapidly progressive, ascending motor weakness; death by failure of respiratory muscles; segmental demyelination, inflammation of peripheral nerves; CSF has ­ protein

Huntingtion's disease—hereditary, progressive, fatal disorder involving the "extrapyramidal" motor system, characterized by involuntary movements (chorea) and dementia—autosomal dominant; apparent in adulthood; gain of function mutation; atrophy of the caudate nucleus, putamen and globus pallidus

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis—Lou Gehrig's disease—progressive degenerative disorder involving the upper and lower motor neurons of he pyramidal system w/muscle weakness, atrophy, and spasticity; loss of motor neurons in anterior horns; fasciculations (small involuntary movements); hyperactive DTR and a Babinski reflex

Alzheimer's disease—the most common cause of dementia in the elderly, w/cerebrovascular disease accounting for most the remaining cases; seinle dementia and presenile dementia; genetic factors; deposition of amyloid, expression of specific alleles of apoprotein; neurofibrillary tangles; senile plaques; amyloid core; amyloid angiopathy

32.    What is an acoustic neuroma?  Schwannomas; from Schwann cells and a little from fibroblasts; well-circumscribed masses attached to peripheral nerves, cranial nerves or spinal nerve roots; the 8th cranial nerve is a particularly common site well-demarcated masses in the angle b/w the cerebellum and pons

33.    Which neuropathy presents w/a "glove & stocking" distribution?  Guillain-Barre (most common life threating peripheral nerve disease

34.    Recognize descriptions for the following:

Paraesophageal hernia—separate portion of the stomach, usually along the greater curvature, enters the thorax through the widened foramen

Sliding hernia—95% of cases; protrusion of the stomach above the diaphragm creates a bell-shaped dilation, bounded below by the diaphragmatic narrowing

Achalasia—failure to relax; incomplete relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter in response to swallowing 1) aperistalsis 2) partial or incomplete relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter w/swallowing 3) increased resting tone of the lower esophageal sphincter

Mallory-Weiss syndrome—longitudinal tears in esophagus at esophagogastric jxn; found in alcoholics

Barrett's esophagus—long standing gastroesophageal reflux, replacement of the normal distal stratified squamous mucosa by abnormal metaplasitc columnar epithelium containing goblet cells

Esophagitis—80% in Iran and high in China; origins include prolonged gastric intubation, uremia, ingestion of corrosive or irritant substances, and radiation or chemotherapy; overwhelming preponderance of cases in Western countries are attributable to reflux of gastric contents (reflux esophagitis)  1)decreased efficacy of esphageal antireflux mechanisms  2) inadequate or slowed esophageal clearance of refluxed material 3) sliding hiatal hernia 4) increased gastric volume, contributing to the volume of refluxed material  5) impaired reparative capacity of the esophageal mucosa by prolonged exposure to gastric juices

35.    What are the risk factors for carcinoma of the esophagus?  Most are squamous cell carcinomas; more incidence among blacks than whites

·        Long standing esophagitis

·        Achalasia

·        Plummer-vinson syndrome (esophageal webs, microcytic hypochromic anemia, atrophic glossitis)

·        Alcohol consumption

·        Tobacco abuse

·        Deficiency of vitamins (A,C, riboflavin, thiamine, pyridoxine)

·        Deficiency of trace metals (zinc, molybdenum)

·        Fungal contamination of foodstuffs

·        High content of nitrites/nitrosamines

·        Tylosis (hyperkeratosis of palms and soles

36.    Differentiate acute gastritis, peptic ulcers and chronic esophagitis by definition or clinical presentation.

Acute gastritis—acute mucosal inflammatory process, usually of a transient nature; erosin—sloughing of the superficial mucosal epithelium

·        Heavy use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs—aspirin

·        Excessive alcohol consumption

·        Heavy smoking

·        Treatment w/cancer chemotherapeutic drugs

·        Uremia

·        Systemic infections (salmonellosis)

·        Severe stress (trauma, burns, surgery)

·        Ischemia and shock

·        Suicide attempts w/acids and alkali

·        Mechanical trauma (nasogastric incubation)

·        After distal gastrectomy w/reflux of bilious material

Peptic ulcers—breach in the mucosa of the alimentary tract that extends through the muscularis mucosa into the submucosa or deeper; duodenum and stomach; chronic, solitary; 98% in first portion of duodenum or stomach; need exposure to gastric acid and pepsin, very strong causal association w/H. pylori infection

Chronic esophagitis—10-20% of US population, reflux of gastric contents, heartburn, regurgitation, usually over 40y/o; bleeding, Barretts (malignancy); nausea and vomiting

37.    What is the relationship b/w stomach ulcers and Helicobacter infection?  What is the most important in allowing an ulcer to develop?  H. pylori is present in virtually all duodenal ulcers and about 70% of those w/gastric ulcers; only 10-20% of individuals worldwide infected w/H. pylori actually develop peptic ulcers; must have breach in mucosa; imbalance b/w the gastoduodenal mucosal defenses and the countervailing aggressive forces that overcome such defenses

38.    What is linitis plastica?   What is the different appearance of ulcerative carcinoma and a benign peptic ulcer?  Gastric wall is extensively infiltrated by malignancy.  It has a rigid and thickened stomach—leather bottle stomach (breast and lung may have similar appearance)

·        Ulcerative carcinoma—large w/irregular, heaped-up margins; extensive excavation of the gastric mucosa w/a necrotic gray area in the deepest portion Fig 15-17

·        Peptic ulcer—small ulcer w/sharply punched-out appearance.  The margins are not elevated.  The ulcer base shows a small amount of blood, but is otherwise clean. 

39.    Differentiate b/w Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis.  What are skip lesions, pseudopolyps?  Which is a granulomatous disease?  Chronic relapsing disorders of unknown origin; idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease

Crohn's disease—granulomatous disease that may affect any portion of the GI tract form esophagus to anus but most often involves the small intestine and colon; skip lesions have affected area followed by an unaffected area in a scattered pattern; viewed as a systemic disease w/predominant GI involvement

1)      sharply delimited and typically transmural involvement of the bowel by an inflammatory process w/mucosal damage

2)      the presence of nancaseating granulomas in 40-60% of cases

3)      fissuring w/formation of fistulae

4)      mesenteric fat "creeping fat" that wraps around the bowel surface

Ulcerative colitis—nongranulomatous disease limited to the colon; ulceroinflammatory disease affecting the colon but limited to the mucosa and submucosa except in the most severe cases.  Begins in the rectum and extends proximally in a continuous fashion. Can be considered a systemic disease (ankylosing spondylitis).  Pseudopolyps—w/severe disease, there is extensive and broad-based ulceration of the mucosa in the distal colon or throughout its lenth—isolated of islands of regenerating mucosa bulge upward

1.      no well-formed granulomas

2.      no skip lesions

3.      mucosal ulcers do not extend below the submucosa w/little fibrosis

4.      mural thickening does not occur; serosal surface is normal

5.      greater risk for carcinoma

40.  Bowel Obstruction

1.      hernia—weakness in wall of peritoneal cavity w/protrusion.  Segments of viscera frequently intrude and become trapped in them (external herniation)

2.      intestinal adhesions—surgical procedures, infections endometriosis or peritonitis can form fibrous bridges than may create loops and trap viscera

3.      intussuception—telescoping of proximal segment of bowel into the immediate distal segment.  In children, may occur spontaneously.  Adults usually have a point of attachment (tumor) that "sling-shots" the proximal bowel forward

4.      volvulus—twisting of bowel loop or ovary blocking venous outflow and arterial supply.  Infarction and obstruction may follow.

5.      Toxic megacolon—rare—extensive erosion and exposure of neural plexus to fecal material—neuromuscular function shuts down, colon progressively swells and becomes gangrenous—seen w/Ulcerative Colitis

6.      Hirschesprung Disease—Congenital Megacolon—caudad migration of neural crest are arrested during descent before reaching the anus—aganglionic segment which lacks both Meissner's and Auerbach's plexi—functional obstruction and progressive distention of the colon proximal to the affected segment

7.      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome—non-neoplastic polyps—uncommon hamartomatous polyps that occur as part of the rare autosomal dominant—melanotic mucosal and cutaneous pigmentation—increased risk of both intestinal and extraintestinal malignancies

8.      Diverticulitis—blind pouch leading off the alimentary tract, lined w/mucosa, that communicates w/the lumen of the gut; taeniae coli are muscular bands of the colon which can lead to muscular defects; seen in 60+ Westerners from consumption of refined, low fiber diet leading to smaller stools and difficulty passing it through

9.      Meckel's diverticulum—most common and innocuous of these anomalies; failure of involution of omphalomesenteric duct, leaving a persistent blind ended tubular protrusion; seen in ileum; composed of all layers of the normal small intestine; asymptomatic; bacterial growth that depletes vit B12 leading to condition similar to pernicious anemia

41.   What is the most common cell type of colon cancer?  What is a napkin ring lesion?  Where is it typically found?  How does the presentation w/right colon cancer differ from left colon cancer? Adenocarcinomas; When carcinomas in the distal colon are discovered, they tend to be annular, encircling lesions that produce so-called napkin ring constrictions of the bowel narrowing the lumen; Shift towards right colon cancer; can't be detected by digital or proctosigmoidoscopic examination; left-sided lesions—occult bleeding, changes in bowel habit, or crampy LLQ (left lower quadrant) discomfort; cecal and right sided lesions are found do to fatigue, weakness, and iron deficiency anemia

42.  What is the significance of iron deficient anemia in the older male?   It almost always

means GI cancer.

43.  What dietary factors are implicated in colon cancer? 

  1. low content of unabsorbable vegetable fiber
  2. corresponding high content of refined carbohydrates
  3. high fat content (from meat)
  4. decreased intake of protective micronutrient such as vit A,C,E
  5. reduced fiber intake decreases stool bulk

44.    What is the most important prognostic indicator of colorectal cancer? favorite metastatic sites:  regional lymph nodes, liver, lungs and bone; 25%-30% of cases are beyond surgical cure at dx—extent of the tumor at the time of diagnosis

45.    Define

a.       fetor hepaticus—characteristic body odor variously described as "musty" or "sweet and sour";related to the formation of mercaptans by the action of GI bacteria on the sulfur containing aa methionine, and shunting of splanchnic blood from the portal into the systemic circulation

b.      ascites—excess fluid in peritoneal cavity; detectable at 500mL; serous fluid w/albumin; involves one or more 1)sinusoidal hypertension; percolation of hepatic lymph flow into peritoneal cavity; renal retention of Na+ and water

c.       spider angiomas—spider telangiectasia—radial array of some-what dilated subcutaneous arteries and aterioles about a central core; they may pulsate; liver cirhosis; impaired estogen metabolism and consequent hyperestrogenemia

d.      caput medusa—abdominal wall collaterals that appear as dilated subcutaneous veins extending form the umbilicus toward the rib margins—hallmark of portal hypertension

46.    Clinical Consequences of Liver Disease

Characteristic Signs

Hepatitisatic dysfxn

 

Jaundics and cholestasis

 

Hypoalbuminemia

 

Hyperammonemia

 

Fetor hepatitisaticus

 

Palmar erythema

 

Spider angiomas

 

Hypogonadism

 

Gynecomastia

 

Weight loss and muscle wasting

 

Portal hypertension form cirrhosis:

 

Ascites

 

Splenomegaly

 

Hemorrhoids

 

Caput medusa

Life-threatening Complications

Hepatitisatic failure

 

Multiple organ failure

 

Coagulopathy

 

Hepatitisatic encephalopathy

 

Hepatitisatorenal syndrome

47.    What is the most common cause of cirrhosis?  What are typical causes of death of cirrhosis?  Alcoholism; mechanism of death is progressive liver failure, complications to portal hypertension; hepatocellular carcinoma

48.    Define

a.       hepatic failure—hepatic destruction; end point of progressive damgae to the liver; loss of 80-90% of hepatic function; findings include jaundice, hypoalbuminemia, hyperammonemia, fetor hepaticus; it is life threatening; death multiple organ system failure esp respiratory w/pneumonia and sepsis and renal failure

b.      fulminant hepatitis—hepatic insufficiency that progresses from onset of syptoms to hepatic encephalopathy w/in 2-3 wks; viral hepatitis accounts for 50-60%; drugs and chemical account for 25-30%; loss of liver substance; complete destruction of hepatocytes

c.       acute hepatitis—any of the hepatitis viruses can cause; 4 phases 1) incubation period 2) symptomatic preicteric 3)symptomatic icteric  4) convalescnce; hepatocyte injury is diffuse swelling (ballooning degeneration), cholestasis (bile plugs in canaliculi and brown pigmenation of hepatocytes); fatty change in unusual except in HCV

d.      chronic hepatitis—symptomaic, biochemical or serological evidence of continuing or relapsing hepatic disease for more than 6 months w/histologically documented inflammation and necrosis; Wilson's disease, a1-antitrypsin deficiency, chronic alcoholism, drugs, and autoimmunity; findings include spider angiomas, plamar erythema, mild hepatomegaly, hepatic tenderness, and mild splenomegaly


 

49.    Hepatitis A, B, C

 

Hepatitis A

Hepatitis B

Hepatitis C

Agent

Icosahedral capsid, ssRNA

Enveloped dsDNA

Enveloped ssRNA

Classification

Picornavirus

Hepadnavirus

Flavivirus

Transmission

Fecal-oral

Parenteral; close personal contanct

Parenteral; close personal contact

Incubation period

2-6

4-26

2-26

Fulminant hepatitis

<0.5%

<1%

Rare

Carrier state

None

0.1-1%

0.2%-1%

Chronic hepatitis

None

5-10% of acute infections

>50%

Hepatocellular carcinoma

No

Yes

yes

50.    What are the risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma?  #1 is hepatits B viral infection, hepatocarcinogens in food (primarily aflatoxins), and chronic liver disease

51.    What are the most common type of gallstone, which is visible on x-ray, how often are they symptomatic?  What leads to ductual obstruction?  Cholesterol stones containing crystalline cholesterol monohydrate are the most common; need sufficient calcium carbonate to be seen on x-ray; brown stones contain calcium soaps and can be seen on x-ray; >80% are asymptomatic (<20% a symptomatic);

52.    Define

a.       cholelithiasis—gallstones

b.      cholecystitis—inflammation of gallbladder

c.       cholangitis—acute inflammation of the wall of the bile ducts; almost always due to bacterial infection of the normally sterile lumen

53.    What are the diseases of endocrine pancreas?  The exocrine?

Enodcrine—diabetes mellitus (b cells) and islet cell carcinomas (hyperinsulinism, hypergstinemia, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, endocrine neoplasia

Exocrine—acute and chronic pancreatitis, carcinoma of the pancreas

54.    acute pancreatitis—acute onset of abdominal of abdominal pain resulting form enzymatic necrosis and inflammation of the pancreas; elevation of pancreatic enzymes in blood and urine; fat necrosis; acute hemorrhaic pancreatitis

chronic pancreatitis—repeated bouts of mild to moderate pnacreatic inflammation w/continued loss of pancreatic parenchyma and relplacement by fibrous tissue; distinction b/w acute and chronic whether the pancreas was normal before a symptomatic attack or is already chronically damaged

55.    In what portion of the pancreas is carcinoma most likely to arise?  Exocrine portion; 60% in the head, 15% in body, 5 % in tail; 20% throughout the entire gland


 

56.    Difference b/w adult onset and juvenile onset diabetes

 

Type I—Juvenile—insulin dependent

Type II—Adult—non-insulin dependent—80-90% of cases

Clinical

Onset <20yrs; normal weight; decreased blood insulin; anti-islet antibodies; ketoacidosis common

Onset >30yrs; obesity; normal or increased blood insulin; no anti-islet cell antibodies; Ketoacidosis rare

Genetics

50% conconrdance in twins

60%-80% concordance in twins

Pathogenesis

Autoimmunity, immunopathologic mechanisms, severe insulin deficiency—dependent upon insulin treatment

Insulin resistance—insulin sensitivity of target tissue decreases, serum levels of insulin may be elevated; decrease in # of insulin receptors and postreceptor signaling by insulin is impaired

Islet cells

Insulitis early; marked atrophy and fibrosis; severe b-cell depletion

No insulitis; focal atrophy and amyloid deposits; mild b-cell depletion

 

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