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The first apparent supporting element is the language used by Hobbs in the writing of the work. The name "Leviathan" is biblical and connotes a monsterous, consuming beast. It is Jonah's whale- a story well known to reverent church-goers since their childhood education. Considering the fact that the Puritans were gaining power in Parliament at the time, here was a title that would immediately grasp their attention. Why had he not entitled his work, "A Republic" or "The Sovereignty of State"? Because the Puritains were quickly becoming the voice of the majority. Hobbs' Leviathan was entitled for the purpose of name-recognition and its association.
One must note that, because of the Puritan, morality movement of Hobbs' time, there was already censcorship in effect throughout Parlimentary England. Music, plays, literature, and public speeches were approved or condemned by the Puritain representatives. The Puritains were Christian fundamentalists and moralists who were gradually creating a fascist environment; the state would dictate morality.
With this in mind, how could Hobbs publish a paper (and get away with it) under such totalitarian conditions? Again, he appealed to religious association. His thesis on the nature of man is biblical, though reworded. Hobbs states that the BASIC nature of MAN is to be WARLIKE. He repeats this throughout the beginning of the Leviathan and, to a Puritain audience, he's polling their agreement. The Bible says that man is BY NATURE SINFUL. In the New Testament, there are many listings (Romans chpt.1 and 2 for starters) of the violent and egotistical nature of man. A Puritain populous would, instead of being skeptical, be induced to read on.
The old, imperial regime was on its way to the headsman; the chopping block. This monarchy was supported by the Church of England, which was a fair replica of the Roman Catholic church. The main difference was that the King was the head of the Church of England (started by Henry VIII) instead of the Pope. Under such a religious organization, evil deeds were treated by consequentialism. A sinful deed was done and an atonement had to be paid to gain absolution. The new Puritain, Protestantism however, was not consequential in such matters. It propounded (from the Bible) that it was within the basic nature of man to be sinful. It required only a sincere apology (repentence) when a sinful act was committed. So, by making a strong issue about the WARLIKE NATURE of MAN, Hobbs was directly petitioning the Puritains. {A great marketing move!}
This "familiar religious-association" saturates the beginning of the Leviathan and accomplishes a second task. It is also no mystery that Hobbs' times were violent times. Rebellions, revolutions and horrendous social discontent were commonplace. After years of social unrest and imperial retaliation, the citizens were understandibly tired of the chaos. Hobbs' vivid description of the turmoil of the times was a perfect bait to get his readers to bite the attached sovereign hook. In fact, the issue of sovereignty was placed, very strategically, in the center of the Leviathan. With so much talk of sovereign rights, what mental image would his readers draw on? Perhaps "The Sovereign" that they had just beheaded- King Charles I? Most people I know, when I say the word "politics" think of a politician. That seems to be a mental lever; Hobbs was pulling on it!
In the first place, the timing of the whole matter is suspect. Consider the facts:
1. 1640: King Charles I calls Parliament back in session by popular demand
2. 1649: King Charles I is tried for treason by Parliament
3. 1649: Charles I is beheaded; England is named a REPUBLIC.
4. 1651: Hobbs publishes LEVIATHAN
5. 1658: Oliver Cromwell dies
6. 1660: Charles II is crowned- The Restoration
This list shows a twenty-year span and Hobbs is found smack in the center of these key events.
So- what's up wit dat? Thomas Hobbs "risked his neck" to promote a Republic? Hey, England had
been declared a Republic of the Commonwealth two years prior to the LEVIATHAN! Why was
Hobbs seen as such a daring revolutionary? For starters, he was not a Puritain sympathizer.
So- why would he write a thesis that supported the politics of the Puritain Commonwealth?
I say he didn't; I say he set the stage for Charles II to re-ascend the throne of England-
the time we call the Restoration. The plot thickens and Hobbs is a sympathizer of the
aristocracy and nobility.
There's much more, but for now, I quit. Plenty to think about!
� 1997
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